Is Income Inequality A Myth?

 | Apr 07, 2014 01:27AM ET

During the past week, there has been a few more posts on income inequality. The most notable to me:

  • John Mauldin's "When Inequality Isn't " where it is argued that increasing income inequality is a myth.
  • Mish's "No Increase in Wealth Inequality for Top 1% Since 1960 " where it is argued that it is only the 0.1% (and not the top 1%) which is causing the income inequality.

Follow up:

Please consider that US Census , social security, union dues, medicare deductions, medical insurance, etc. Therefore, money income does not reflect the fact that some families receive part of their income in the form of non-cash benefits, such as food stamps, health benefits, subsidized housing, and goods produced and consumed on the farm. Consider that both the lowest quintile and the highest quintile has significant "income" which is not counted. Most of the middle quintiles are viewed without determining "real spendable income". The Mish study referenced above uses US Census income.

This past week, we posted that household median incomes had a nice increase in February . This data set uses US Census incomes.

On the other hand, the John Mauldin post went the other direction and used expenditures instead of income to argue that inequality is not growing. John Lounsbury muses :

The Myth of Increasing Income Inequality  (Diana Furchtgott-Roth). The key element of the paper is the relative constancy of consumer expenditures relative to income level over a recent 25-year period.